"Under The Law"

Under The Law

Paul makes four references to being "Under the law" in Galatians, which it's difficult not to suggest is criticizing THE written Torah in our Bibles as oppressive. But yet again the translators have done us the same disservice. The original greek says simply "under law".

Again if Paul is taking pot shots at Jewish law when he speaks of being "under law" we need to ask the same question. Which part of first century Jewish Law was Paul implying was an oppressive burden?

Galatians 4:4 But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under THE law, NKJV

Galatians 4:5 5 to redeem those who were under THE law, . NKJV

Galatians 4:21 21 Tell me, you who desire to be under THE law, do you not hear the law? NKJV

Galatians 5:18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under THE law. NKJV

Again feel free to compare the NKJV translation with Young's Literal Translation in the parallel translations of Galatians 4 and Galatians 5 provided, to validate that indeed the original Greek DOES NOT SAY "under THE law", simply "under law".

Some have argued that this phrase means "under the PENALTY of the law", but if this is the case, why would anyone "desire to be under the (penalty) of the law" (Gal 4:21)?

Is Galatians 5:18 really saying that if we're led by the Spirit, the (oppressive) written Torah can be ignored? Well the view that the written Torah is oppressive is something that might make sense to many twenty first century christians, but it wouldn't have made sense to FIRST century Jews, because Jews have always loved the written Torah law. In fact to Jews, the written Torah-law has never seemed to be oppressive in any way.

Nevertheless, some would have us believe that Paul says the Mosaic law (more correctly the written Torah law of God) is a curse. Is this what Paul meant?

Return to the start of Galatians, Paul, The Torah-Law and Legalism a Judianity website ?

Why do many christian theologians believe that Paul kept Nazirite vows & offered sacrifices at the temple after the crucifixion if the Old Testament law is "done away"? One small and predictable change to the "law of Moses" about circumcising gentile proselytes in Acts caused massive turmoil in the predominantly Jewish first century church. If most of the other Old Testament laws were "done away" why then isn't any comparable fuss recorded in the New Testament ?

Let's take a closer look at Paul's References to "The Curse of the Law" in Galatians
© www.galatians-paul-the-torah-law-legalism.info Jan 2006.